Think Wink.

Here is another question that just donned on me this morning at work.

4.) Romans 1:16 is Paul’s declaration of him being unashamed of the gospel. In Romans 1:16-18, Paul uses γὰρ three times to introduce a new phrase or idea. In Romans 1:16 it says that the gospel is the power of God for salvation. In Romans 1:17 it appears that Paul is using γὰρ to say that the gospel reveals (ἀποκαλύπτεται) God’s righteousness from faith to faith and then cites Habakkuk 2:4 in support of his claim. Then in Romans 1:18 is Paul using γὰρ in the same way as in Romans 1:16-17? The parallel between Romans 1:17 and 1:18 in the use of ἀποκαλύπτεται is striking. Does God reveal his wrath against unrighteousness in the same gospel that reveals God’s righteousness and that is God’s power to save? How does this change one’s understanding of the gospel and justification and salvation if the answer to this question is an affirmative answer? Is there any change to Protestant position if the answer is in the negative?

An Interesting Question

I cannot tell a lie?

That’s a Good Question